Does it make sense?
Does | 1 | ÷ | 1 | really equal 3 ? |
2 | 6 |
In the same way our fraction question can become:
1 | ÷ | 1 | ![]() |
How many | 1 | in | 1 | ? |
2 | 6 | 6 | 2 |
How many | ![]() |
in | ![]() |
? | Answer: 3 |
So now you can see that | 1 | ÷ | 1 | = 3 | really does makes sense! | ||
2 | 6 |
Example 2
1 | ÷ | 1 |
8 | 4 |
Step 1. Turn the second fraction upside-down (the reciprocal):
1 | becomes | 4 |
4 | 1 |
Step 2. Multiply the first fraction by that reciprocal:
1 | × | 4 | = | 1 × 4 | = | 4 |
8 | 1 | 8 × 1 | 8 |
Step 3. Simplify the fraction:
4 | = | 1 |
8 | 2 |
But maybe you want to know why we do it this way ...
Why Turn the Fraction Upside Down?
Well ... what Does a Fraction Do?
A fraction says to: | ||
|
![]() |
![]() |
Example: 3/4 means to cut into 4 pieces, and then take 3 of those. So you:
|
Example: 3/4 of 20 is:
20 divided by 4, then times 3 = (20/4) × 3 = 5 × 3 = 15
Or you could multiply before dividing:
20 times 3, then divide by 4 = (20 × 3) / 4 = 60/4 = 15
Either way gets the same result
Dividing
But when you DIVIDE by a fraction, you are asked to do the opposite of multiply ...So you:
- divide by the top number
- multiply by the bottom number
Example: dividing by 5/2 is the same as multiplying by 2/5

Dividing by 5, then Multiplying by 2
is the same as
Multiplying by 2, then Dividing by 5
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